For Aston Lawyer,
Thank you for your response. Sorry I should have made it clear, this is a flat in Greece. It does not have a mortgage and is owned outright, in joint tenancy (I only own 12.5%). The other owners are my two sisters and until recently my uncle, but i have just found out that he has recently (four months ago) given his share (25%) to one of my sisters (who equally held 31.25% each).
I was not informed about this exchange (I have only just found out through being told of it by my solicitor who deals with my tax returns and the property for the family), and there is not a reason why the other owners should not have notified me. I think there is a possibility my sisters may have fabricated that i have incapacity, but i currently have no evidence that they may have done this. Alternately it may be an instance of keeping me intentionally uninformed. This follows a pattern of repeated withholding of records, deeds, registrations and information. They have failed to inform me on a prior occasion several years ago when both my sisters bought out another uncle, and subsequently claimed i was unwell at the time of their purchase when i was not. I am not incapacitated, nor have I ever had any incapacity that would give reason for them not to have informed me of this action, or had they informed me of it as a proposal.
Could i ask you again, would they have legally needed to have informed me, or sought my consent/agreement. Unfortunately i do not know if there is a deed of co-ownership which might state this, am in the process of trying to seek a copy if there is one, but also wondered if this would be stated in Greek property law.