Thanks I have now been given conflicting advise because another lawer has told me that he cannot force me to sell as he only holds 25% which is the minority, we are tenants in common and I have been advised he can have a key and get into the house but not force me to sell. and that I could apply to the court to stay as it is my family home and I live there with my (his) son
There is one other thing, back in 2008 he signed all the forms to transfer the equity of the property to myself for Nil value. This was all done by solicitors but it did not go through in the end only because my Mortgage provider said no. Would this stand up in a court of law? The fact that he was willing to transfer it back to me then for nil value? Or is this totally irrelavant? I am in the process of making him an offer but need to know if the preivious correspondance and signed forms would make any difference
Would there be any weight to it though? For example I gave him the gift of 25% share in law but he was willing to give it back to me, the mortgage company said no which was not my fault but the intention was there from his side to give it back to me for nothing.
He does not work so would never be able to get a mortgage and does not want one, he wants to apply for bankruptcy that is why he wants off the motgage no other reason.
no, nor engaged