The order only states that I pay CSA for our son who we share.
After that I have a clean break.
Yes I will receive my 5%.
I do not see it as her buying me out; it will be she has an asset of £270K for delaying matters for 14 months and I get a paltry amount.
Also the proceeds of sale agreed were based on her maintaining she had no borrowing capacity and needed to be secure for her and our son.
Now that she says she has a borrowing capacity how can she be given a variation to the agreed Consent Order due to her dramatic change in circumstances when I have not agreed? On that same principle would that not mean that I can get a variation in terms of the split of assets due to her new circumstances?
Therefore her buying the house would only be detrimental to me requesting a fairer split.
It seems to be one rule for me and another for her.
It's all very confusing....