I have been married for 15 years.
I have three children. Two of them who are now not living in the house anymore as they are working elsewhere and are over 18. My youngest child lives with me and is 12.
The house was worth 225k when it was due to my Father.
The house also has 69k outstanding mortgage.
My income is 22k, and his is well over 40k.
I'm not sure whether the following information is of use, however I will provide it just in case:
The reason for the divorce was that I was suffering from domestic violence and my husband was actually arrested under a number of serious allegations.
I have paid for the majority of the household bills, including the mortgage, water, gas, telephone, holidays and insurance. He did not contribute much at all.
I just don't feel that it is fair that he is the substantial earner, has not contributed to the household costs for all these years, and that the house was originally bought for me from my Father.
If you need any further information then please let me know.
The property is worth 420k now, and at the date of transfer, the house was worth 225k, so I owe him 225k when I am to sell the property.
I have a very small pension with work, however I know he has a pension with work and that he contributes well over £100 a month to it.
He currently pays £320 child maintenance
Do you need any further information?
Thank you for your reply.
Could you please explain 'this does not wipe out his claims', I do not fully understand this comment.
Also if the loan was not interest free, and the consideration was paid in cash, where would I stand?
Thank you again