Well, we never know. The declaration says for the next 5 years. He has never had financial problems.
I just want to protect myself, because it will be a circumstance that will not depend on him (the bank asking me to sell to recover money owned by him).
The clause only applies if in a case of bankruptcy the transfers is considered unfair or a gift. Which it is likely to be if I say there will no be exchange of money. However, if I say there will be an exchange of money this risk will disappear, I guess. My point is, can I declare there will be an exchange of money when there will not be any? If I do so, for the solely purpose of the transfer to have a true value, will I be, at some point of the transfer, be asked to 'pay' him and to demonstrate payment?