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Thanks for the response.
So the fact that I have paid the mortgage, and the mortgage is solely in my name, it won't make any difference?
I would assume that if I stop paying the mortgage, that wouldn't make a difference and only give me bad credit history.
I have not lived there since we separated. I can legally enter and reside in the property, but I know if I tried she would cause a scene and claim it's a domestic incident.
Sounds like I don't really have any options, as she is highly unlikely to either move out or agree to sell.
Yes, but that would be on the basis that I could get her to agree to sell, which I know I can't. I was rather hoping there was a legal route I could go down and force her to sell.
Well I suppose on the plus side it means she cannot sell without my permission or agreement either.
If I start the court action, what are the time scales involved and what circumstances would they take into consideration?