I bought house 8 months before marriage so 17 months in total.
We lived together for around 3 years in rented accommodation before that.
I do not know how much she earns but I expect considerably less than me. She is a newly qualified hair stylist.
Because I intended to live there alone.
No, we had split up, i was living with a friend while I bought the house.
Home improvements. If she wants 50/50 i would like to know if i can factor in this debt, after all i still had debt when we separated.
Please provide me with an answer soon.
When you say short relationship, do you mean short marriage (9 months)?
If it went to court, Is the judge likely to rule between 10-20% after considering all of the facts?
Could she get more than 50% in court due to her smaller mortgage capacity/low salary/2 teenage children-one under 16. (sorry forgot to mention that, they are her own children. ??
In privately rented house, have been since separation. They have supported themselves and not asked me for any financial support since the day she left.
Is that was a judge would likely rule?
Thanks Clare.. One last thing
is it true that she could go for more than 50% or as much as she can get due to her low salary and therefore low mortgage capacity?
Thanks Clare, appreciate it.
I have offered my ex £5000 plus I pay court costs, I evealuate this to be approx. 15% and she has accepted. Consent order is being written up once she signs to confirm the agreement... My only concern is whether the judge will rubber stamp it, surely he will if we have both agreed the settlement?
What would happen/next steps in that case?
If we go ahead with settlement without stamped court order does that mean she could come back after divorce for more money?
How could i prevent this happening in this instance? Ps. She registered interest on my property with land registry 2 weeks ago, would she still have this interest registered after a divorce with/without a consent order and how would i get her name removed?
My ex is stating that she has "not" sought legal advice on the consent order. I believe she has because a good friend of hers is a family law solicitor based in Leicester and I would be stupid to think that she wouldn't have sought free "off the record" legal advice from her friend.
In your experience what reasons would she have to try to get the order rejected?
Also, with no stamped consent order and a decree absolute, can I have her interest removed from the land registry?
I am sorry I am not sure I follow?
If she has signed the consent order it will go ahead?
I thought the judge doesnt have to stamp it if he/she feels its unfair and unreasonable? Particularly if she states she hasnt sought legal advice.
Could you please explain to me in detail what you mean?
Ie. The agreement going ahead without judge sealing the order? How would we go about doing this? Could you explain how this works? What is the point on doing a private settlement if it is not legally binding and she could come back for more at a later date?
Plus, what orders could there be that restricts me from lifting her interest in my property upon receipt of decree absolute?
I am looking for more detail if possible.
Does she have to apply for that order if consent is not stamped?
Wpuld you advise I do not apply for decree absolute until financial arrangements have been dealt with?