The house is worth around £300,000 and the mortgage on it is £100,000.
My husband has a flat in his sole name, which we rent out and has a tenant in it. This is worth around £140,000 but has a mortgage. I'm not sure how much though, around £105...
We have credit card debts of £14,000 in my name and £9,500 in my husbands' name.
No children are involved.
Someone told me they think he can only lay claim to the house from when his name went on the deeds and that the value of the house prior to his name going on the deeds would be mine. His share being half of the value now, minus the value of the house prior. Is this correct please?