The mortgage will still go out of my own personal account but she would pay rent into the joint account, which I will then draw on.
The reason for the joint account is that the accountant recommended it - for transparency so we can both see what we are putting in and how we are contributing to the property over the long term.
He recommended this approach because at some point in the future, I would like to give her a percentage of the house. This lets us track the figures more easily on who is spending what on improvements and renovations each year.
A future divorce is not going to be easy to agree regarding a financial split, so I want to check if this would expose me to any claims from her ex. I had thought that since the property and her rental income has no root in the marriage that he could not claim - but my conveyancing solicitor has raised a doubt about this.
Could you clarify 'cause confusion' - do you mean there is a good chance he could claim not just on the funds in the account (which are likely to be minimal as a bills accounts) but on the house itself?
And if so, does that mean that any non-marital assets gained after they separated would be considered in a divorce settlement?