I am concluding a UK divorce. I would like to understand what might be a normal percentage deduction to the value of a pension that can't be split. I paid an actuary for a a pension appraisal which indicated a “present value for equitable distribution” of $1,223,841.33, half of which is $611,921 or in GBP £401,476. What would a typical discount be on that £401,476 to provide as a lump sum (she will received approximately £1.5m in other assets as cash) given that it is a defined benefit plan and that I can't collect a pension for 9 years and so the £401,476 value is NOT the same as cash.
This question is important. I would like any type of answer even if it's to say that they need more info, better clarification ... anything. I've been waiting on this. Clare has answered in the past and has even provided me with a figure based on some incidental information I had given her. This is just updated information that is more accurate.
It's US based so he just gave me the total value of cash that would be needed to pay $96,000 US per year, which is how the payout is described. He came up with 1.2m US$. Half of that is $600k and that translates to £400,000 GBP. To pay that as an offset now is substantial considering it's not a cash in hand number. I coudn't access my half of the £400k for example. So the short answer is no, he did not give me an opinion on that.