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We are separating. I have been cohabiting with my partner for that last 18 years and we have a 20 year old daughter together. My son from previous relationship has lived with us since he was 2 (now 24). During that time I have brought up the children (both very premature) and been a pretty much stay-at-home mum through necessity as that I had worked full time up until birth of daughter and was the main income earner of the two of us. My partner pursued his career while I did what was necessary on the home front and have taken on some freelance projects and other work once the children were older for my own sanity! We are joint tenants on the property in the UK that we have lived in for most of that time and been trying unsuccessfully to sell it for 18 months. We also have a property we own outright in France which we bought jointly (Aug 2007) with us both providing as much money to the project as we could at the time. My partner has apportioned the financial split on the French property at 39.95% me and 60.05% him based on amount he believes was spent in total to make it a home. Is this right in principle? I know I did not personally contribute the same amount but any monies he put towards it were acquired through working full time which I would have thought was for the benefit of the family. Likewise my income although not as significant as his has always gone towards the family and paying my own way so I wasn't totally dependent as that doesn't sit well with me. Is the principle he is applying to the French property correct? Thanks, Lynda
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Thank you for your response. I cancelled my request last night as you advised there was problem fulfilling it. So please disregard.
I have just checked my credit card and a payment was taken yesterday!!!!! Ouch
That is payment for something not received as your office informed me same day you could not fulfill within time scale so I cancelled.
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