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Hi, thanks for your question. Just a bit more information required to fully assist you:
-Are/were you married to each other?
-Whose name is ***** ***** in?
-Who is living in the property now?
Thanks for confirming. As the property is in joint names, you would require his agreement to transfer the title to your sole name. Without such an agreement, unfortunately your only option would be to pursue an application to court and in those circumstances the court will deem whether it is reasonable to transfer the property to you (based on his previous agreement) or to sell the home. Given that there is no mortgage on the property you should expect there to be proposals for you to pay a share of the equity to him in accordance with how he holds the title, therefore as it appears to be a joint tenancy he would be entitled to be compensated for 50% of the equity unless you can show that there is agreement or intention that this would be different.
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