Hi, thank you for your question. Just a bit more information required to fully assist you:
-Are/were you married to each other?
-Are the children his? If so, are they in A-Levels or approved training courses?
-Are there any formal agreements or deeds of trust in place regarding the property?
-Has there been any agreement or intention for you to receive any lump sum from the sale of the property?
As there appears to have been an intention, as well as a financial contribution towards the deposit of the current home by sale of your interest in the former property, you would have grounds to apply to court to seek an appropriate share of the sale of the property. Such a lump sum can of course be paid to you by him prior to any sale but if he does not do this you would need to pursue a court application.
In relation to seeking financial relief from his businesses, as you are not married you would not be entitled to this as legally there is no provision for cohabitees or partners for such relief.
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Yes, the court proceedings will put a strict time-frame to deal with the matter - although be aware of the potential costs if you are legally represented which will be necessary if the matter becomes contested.