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Hello - please forward your questions regarding this matter - how long were you married? any children?
The starting point for the division of assets is 50-50.
If the children are going to predominantly live with you, then unless the sale of the house would produce enough money to buy a home for you and dependent children until they reach 18 and give your husband some money, there is a good chance that you would be able to hang onto the property until then. It would then be sold when the youngest child reaches aged 18 and the proceeds divided, probably 6040 in your favour. Meanwhile, your husband would not be responsible for the mortgage or the bills of a house that he does not live in.
If there are pensions, then the Cash Equivalent Transfer Value (CETV-available from the pension provider) needs to go into the pot as well.
If the company is profitable, your husband may have a claim on the value of the shares although not the shares themselves, just money in respect of which you may be able to offset against the house whereby you keep all the company and he perhaps keeps his pension or has a bigger share of the house when it is eventually sold.
.Can I clarify anything for you?
It would be fair if you have the children 50% of the time each. If the children spend more time with you, then it would only be fair that you had a small amount extra which is why the split is usually 6040 in favour of the resident parent.
In respect of the inheritance, it would depend really on whether that has been “absorbed” into the marital home as a marital asset. The longer ago it was inherited, the more chance it would be treated as a marital asset.
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