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Thegonnec
Thegonnec, Judge
Category: French Law
Satisfied Customers: 1412
Experience:  11 years experience as judge at Paris Industrial Tribunal
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Hi, my elderly father (73) moved to France two years ago with

Customer Question

Hi, my elderly father (73) moved to France two years ago with his partner of 4 years (now 6). My father effectively funded mortgage on his partner's home and household bills for this period and paid for house renovations prior to sale. Having renovated and sold the house in UK they moved to France with circa £350k.
The issue is my father's partner has kept all money in her name and the house 'they' have purchased in France is in her name also. So he is left with nothing as it stands.
French law appears to make no allowance for common law arrangements but I'm wondering if there is an angle to get funds fairly distributed based on the fact the wealth was created in the UK?
Submitted: 3 years ago.
Category: French Law
Expert:  Nicola-mod replied 3 years ago.
Hello,

I've been working hard to find a Professional to assist you with your question, but sometimes finding the right Professional can take a little longer than expected.

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Expert:  Nicola-mod replied 3 years ago.
Hello,

I apologise as we have not yet been able to find a Professional to assist you. Do you wish for me to continue to search for someone to assist you or would you like for us to close your question at this time?

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Customer: replied 3 years ago.

Hi Nicola,


 


I'm happy to wait a few more days. Please advise


Thanks


Sean

Expert:  Nicola-mod replied 3 years ago.
Hello Sean,

We will continue to look for a Professional to assist you.

Thank you for your patience,
Nicola
Expert:  Thegonnec replied 3 years ago.
If they are both French residents, no as only French law would apply and it does not recognize common law unions. From what you describe above nothing can really be done unless they both became English residents again.
From a French legal point of the view, the money which was used to buy the French house was in her name, and the house is therefore hers.
If he had paid for the French house, even if it had been put in her name, he could have claimed a stake in it.
Customer: replied 3 years ago.

Many thanks for your reply.


So even if they are both British citizens, it is the French residency that takes precedence?


Sean

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