I'm sorry to have to tell you that unless there was an agreement to the contrary, when you bought the property.
He is now entitled to 50% of it.
I appreciate that you have paid the bills and
the mortgage over the last 20 years. But you have also had the benefit of
living in the property.
If you have not lived in the property, you
would have had to pay rent somewhere else or a mortgage, somewhere else.
Therefore, it does not matter what each of
you put in, and it even if one put all the deposit in and the other, but
nothing, if there is no agreement to the contrary when you buy the property,
when it is sold the proceeds are split 50-50.
I know this may not seem fair and I must
admit that I am not altogether in agreement with the way the courts look at it,
but that is what is happening.
I know this is not the answer you wanted, but
there is no point in me misleading you.
Does that answer your question? Can I help
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