court cannot order him or her removed from the mortgage unless the lender consents
Although it can order him or her to be removed from the title deeds.
can order an x to pay the mortgage however, and to indemnify him/her against
any claims by the lender, but it does not stop the lender pursuing them both.
is acting for herself and he has solicitors, then she can deal with this
herself and she can tell them that unless they respond to correspondence, she
will make the necessary application to court herself. If she thinks that he is
being obstructive, she can apply to court for an "unless order" which is an
order that says that unless he deals with something by a particular date, then
something else will happen.
not certain if that answers your question. I am happy to expand and answer any
I help further?
Please bear with me today and over any weekends because I
will be online and off-line.
Please don't forget to positively rate my answer service (even if it was not
what you wanted to hear) and I will follow up any further points you raise for
If you don't rate it positively, then the site keep your deposit and I get 0
for my time. It is imperative that you give my answer a positive rating. It
doesn't give me "a pat on the head", "good boy" (like ebay), it is my livelihood!
If in ratings you feel that you expected more or it only helped a little,
please ask me for further info before rating me negatively otherwise I don't
get paid at all for my time and answer.
The thread remains open for us to continue this exchange
I help further?