How JustAnswer Works:
  • Ask an Expert
    Experts are full of valuable knowledge and are ready to help with any question. Credentials confirmed by a Fortune 500 verification firm.
  • Get a Professional Answer
    Via email, text message, or notification as you wait on our site.
    Ask follow up questions if you need to.
  • 100% Satisfaction Guarantee
    Rate the answer you receive.
Ask Jo C. Your Own Question
Jo C.
Jo C., Barrister
Category: Law
Satisfied Customers: 31300
Experience:  Over 5 years in practice
Type Your Law Question Here...
Jo C. is online now

My employer of 24 years has discussed redundancy with me and

Customer Question

my employer of 24 years has discussed redundancy with me and has made 3 employees redundant last month , so the complete compliment of staff is 2
I have no formal contract and have been working 5, 4 and briefly 2 days per week -during last recession , last few years my employment was 3 days per week
now my employer proposed to me to work 1 day per week one, 3 days week two etc.
as I have approached him as why not work 2 days per week there was visible discomfort and I got some woolly answer that as he needs me to finish with the last contract I could leave if employed for 2 days/week ,but is not the case with the above arrangement
I suspect that my employer is trying to 'do me' out of redundancy entitlement
please could you advise me
Thank you in anticipation
Submitted: 4 years ago.
Category: Law
Expert:  Ben Jones replied 4 years ago.
Hello, my name is ***** ***** it is my pleasure to be able to assist with your question today. Please let me know what specific queries do you have about this?
Customer: replied 4 years ago.

I would like to know what difference is there between agreeing to work alternate weeks 1day instead of 3

and agreeing to work 2 days on regular basis ?

also, I assume any agreement will have to be for a 12 week duration only

as not to affect my statutory redundancy pay

is this correct ?