Yes, as old Landlord has sold the Freeholded to tenants of shop in 2013. The Tenants of shop were served Dilaps in 2011. My Lease was never in my name in first place and incorrect date.
And as regards XXXXX XXXXX been invalid - the shop tenants have breached on so many occassions - seems my lease is worthless.
yes, as ex landlord has breached his own lease by allowing the behaviour of tenants to continue. They have cut off our water etc .... my lease states ....... "the common parts" means all main entrances, landings, garden gates, and othe areas included in the title and not subject to any lease or tenancy to which the landlords are entitld to the reversion??Why did the Landlord do nothing???? I made my complaint to him quite clearly.
The shop was served dilaps in 2011 - no reparis have been done. Why is the tenants still in shop and now a leaseholder??
Because the ex landlord has sold the commercial shop plus freehold of property to the rogue tenants??
im not sure Law, I have received no legal documents from these people. I bought my flat as private residential 20 years ago. The shop obviously is commercial. I have a Solicitor looking at all my documents, I am looking for advice from all angles. Many thanks
I am going to opt out of this for anotherexpert. The thread will now open to all experts. There is no need for you to doanything and please don't not reply otherwise it comes back into my inbox.Another expert, with the suitable expertise, will be along shortly.
I am still awaiting another experts advice and look forward to hearing from someone soon.
I am buying my flat as I pay mortgage not rent. The ex tenants now landlord have bought the Freehold apparently. What are my rights please.
This is a minefield to me at the moment and all help and guidance much appreciated.
Yes Alex although it is not in my name and has the incorrect date on it. Does this matter, I have heard of peppercorn.
It is a 99 year lease.