That is ok - but I am in Court tomorrow, so may be some delay.
I was inevitably disappointed by the answer. I suppose I'd assumed that after all these years, we essentially had an oral contract which is as good as a written one. Out of interest, if we'd had a tenancy agreement, how different would the position have been ie. if it had said we had to give 3 months notice, or 6 month's notice for example? I do remember once my landlord telling me it would be 6 months notice on either side, to be fair, when I'd asked him what the position was hypothetically. He would probably deny knowledge of this conversation given that it was years ago.
But I still don't understand. I thought the law said that contractually an oral agreement is as binding as a written agreement? What is the law on that point?
Yes oral contracts are legally binding. Clearly there is an issue on evidence on that point.
Does that clarify?
Is there anything else I can help with?