A few weeks ago I received an email from some family members, saying my father owed them some money because 30 years ago one of their family members had given my father money. My father passed away in April 2012 and nothing of this was ever discussed when my father was alive. The email suggested as may father owed them X amount of money we are rightly entitled 50% equity of your house, which my mother and I currently live in.
Even before my fathers death, my mother and father got divorced. In the divorce settlement my mother was given the house and the deeds of the property were signed over to her.
Also, the family member who had apparently had given my father the money also passed away 15 years ago and anything regarding this money was never discussed. Their seems to be no paper work or any agreements this may have occurred.
My question, what evidence would they need to produce to prove this had happened?
and how would the property come into play?