For telephone contact with children 3 times per week, as per court order. No number is XXXXX but mother only permits her phone number as she thinks and certain judges think that children are too young for mobile phones even though father has bought them for them. Then mother has used the excuse of harrassment as she did not want telephone contact to be allowed, however court said no reason why not and ordered her to "make children available"
That is the point. Mother claimed by waiting outside her house whilst daughter ran in to collect her lipgloss he was harassing her. Police said that they have to respond to this kind of allegation even if it sounds absurd and issue harassment warning and if he made any attempt to contact her even by mobile phone, which due to mother is only means of communication with children as ordered by court, they would then arrest him and he would receive a harassment order. Mother has even phoned the police to say children have been abducted by father when he took them to visit his mother on one of his weekends! She does everything she can to disrupt and unfortunately same old story judge loves mum and hates dad. That is why I asked my riginal question, who trumps who please; police or judge who made court order? Complaint has already been issued about this judge and father thinks judge should have recused himself at recent hearing
Is judge correct though when he says that police cannot interfere with Court Order? Police say they can as harassment is criminal and over rides family court order?