Not sure. I presume that if he just transferred it, the sum would not attract any gift aid. As he has alluded to this mechanism of the IR 'contributing' I am assuming that he has donated it.
I assume that if he donates it then the charity will claim 'gift aid', the IR will contribute to the 'charity' and therefore the networth of the charity will increase by 20% .... is that how it works?
The claimant (non tax payer) has given the defendant £13,500 and he has cashed this. It is probably quite likely that the claimant will have said to the defendant that the money is a donation from her because that is what she will consider it as. She will have just considered the defendant to be administering the donation for her, that said the claimant is adamant that the 'deal' was that the money she entrusted to the defendant would yield a monthly income for her - superior to the income she was then receiving from her investments and that upon her death the 'investment' £13,500 would then go to her nominated charities. Not sure if that answers your question?
Not sure how a charity, comprising of 'donations' can then pay out interest earned as I presume that that should stay with the charity.
I think the second person is just a conduit, but will no doubt claim he was 'given' it and then chose to use it as a donation.
Does a company actually need to be 'charity' in order to claim gift aid? I know that if the 'charity' has over £5,000 then it needs to be registered with the Charities Commission and is then subject to the Governance that that brings ..., but do smaller companies just register themselves as being a charity?
They don't necessarily need to be a registered Charity
But they need to have charitable aims etc.
As long as they comply with the definition they can claim gift aid
Can I clarify anything else?
thank youIn the cover letter I am creating do I simply start it...... Dear Judge Is that the correct protocol?
Yes that is fine