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Yes the deeds are in joint names. Originally, she just wanted to remove her name from the mortagage, but is the email I received today,
Thank you for your reply.
So even though, we have never been married, or co-habited and she has not paid a single penny to any payment or upkeep of he property, she is still entitled to 50% of the proceeds?
How does the 'order for sale work', do they set a time limit and a price, for example?
My personal situation is, I am about to embark on a Post graduate teacher training course, which, if successful, would take me a year to qualify.
Would any of this be taken into consideration if my ex-partner got an 'order for sale'?
As we are both on the deed could I suggest that my ex-partner buys me out and sell the property herself?
On the question of renting, would affordability to rent be considered? As currently it would cost me more to rent a single room in a rented house than the cost of my mortgage. Hence, rendering me technically homeless?
How long does it take to get put a 'order for sale' in place?
In this case, the court is only concerned with the detriment caused to my ex-partner for being on the mortgage, yet would not consider any detriment to me being literally homeless if I was forced to sell the property? i.e any detrimental considerations lie solely with that of my ex-partner, any detriment to myself would be insignifcant.
If I was to ask my ex-partner to buy me out, would I ask for the current market price, or the price we orginally purchased the property for?