We married in July 2008. Lived for a while in his flat. Later lived for a while in my house which I owned and later sold. The proceeds of that house bought the current house - which was bought solely in my name.
We have no dependant children. They are adults.
We did not live together prior to marriage.
We both earn around £25,000 per year.
There are no assets.
The flat was owned jointly with his ex - wife. He defaulted on the flat after he forced her out as domestic violence was involved. He also had a dependant son living with him from a previous relationship . It was re-possessed and sold by the mortgage lender. A surplus amount of £12,000+ was left over. This amount was split between him and his ex - wife.
I re - mortgaged around a year after the cash purchase of the house. The re - mortgage is in my name only. Approx £40,000 outstanding. A home loan of around £27,000 is also outstanding. This is in joint names.
The house was valued last year at between 250,000 and 260,000.
The loan company were unwilling to lend the money as my husband resides at the property. This loan was taken out less than a year ago.
I am 100% sure the property was not transferred into joint names. The joint names relate only to the home loan taken out last year.
Both loans were used to modernise/upgrade the house.
I had some difficulty opening your final reply. I have managed to open it. Thank you.
I am going to allow my husband to instruct as he is the one wanting the divorce. If I don't Co - operate with him how long could this take.
I am aware he will not pay any money towards the loans now. He knows I will be under pressure and struggle to pay the loans on my own. Will this go against him? He may want to force me to sell my home. I am not prepared to do this. Where do I stand now?
I think I can.
I have additional income. A small pension and I have students staying.
No additional required.
I may have to extend the shorter loan or go joint with a family member.
I may have to extend the mortgage or go joint with a member of the family.
Thank you Clare.
My understanding is that he wants to stay in the property whilst the divorce goes through. Therefore he cannot live for free. He must pay towards loans/bills. I would rather he moved out.
He wishes to stay in the property whilst the divorce goes through. Can he be forced to pay towards the bills? I would rather he moved out and proceed with his actions. I will not be cooperating.
Surely he is still responsible for the joint loan whether he is at the property or not?
Would this not be taken into account when his percentage is calculated after the divorce? If I am forced to pay the joint loan on my own, would the amount he has failed to pay be deducted from the settlement.