No, the agreement was a verbal one between FmC (my grandson) and DI (the person who sent the horse to F. F agreed to accept the horse at a much reduced livery fee on the basis that when sold, he would receive 10% commission. This statement can be corroborated by LT (FMc's co-worker at the time). It might also be possible to obtain further statements in support of F's claim from other individuals. FMc had no reason to doubt DI's word; he had been a working pupil at his yard a couple of years earlier and thought they had a good relationship. DI also gave permission for FmC to retain any winnings during the time he had the horse. Would this not have been the action of an "agent" on behalf of the owner? Until yesterday, FMc had no idea that ZW is the rightful owner pf the horse.
Thank you. To whom should the claim be sent? The OWNER (ZW) or the individuals who was, I believe acting as her AGENT (DI), for the reasons I have given in my earlier emails.