Yes. I did have a contract in place but it didn't set out terms of what to do if the cat was infertile.
The contract didn't specifically state this was a breeding Queen, but it allows breeding as there is a clause that states no breeding kittens to be sold from the cat for 2 years (my pet contracts specifically state that they are not allowed to be bred with). The purchaser's intention was to breed with the kitten and I knew that when I sold her as she paid extra for the paperwork to allow the cat to be bred with.
I'm not a commercial seller, I'm a hobby breeder. How does the law define the difference?
It sounds like it will depend on what the magistrate thinks on the day, would it help to get a solicitor if it does go to small claims court?
I only have one or two litters a year but have had more than two total but would there be proof required?
I'm just worried I'll be really nervous going to court and not explain myself properly.
So she would have to prove that I told her the cat was suitable for breeding? There isn't anything in writing that says that from the time of sale. However does the fact that I've since offered to replace the cat with another kitten or have the cat to stud here actually go against me?
Why would it not be likely to come to that? What is the likely outcome as it seems I may have inadvertently given evidence that I accept some liability?
What kind of proof would they need to show?
Should I try to somehow settle it before it goes to court?
Can you take a look at the email I already sent her at the beginning of June please (Text Below)