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No I don't believe there was an actual requirement, just that there are no monies unless the properties are sold as per the final few words "and funds are available from liquidating assets".
My understanding is that it was agreed to transfer into my husband's name so that he could take over the title so as not to have to interact in the future other than to provide the rest of the settlement when it happened.
I responded to this yesterday but now cannot see the response anywhere so I shall send it again just in case.
As I understand there was no written requirement that anything should be sold other than the fact that there was no cash so there would be no way of paying the sum agreed unless properties were liquidated. Only reference to liquidating is in the final paragraph "....and funds are available from liquidating assets".
I think the intention by transferring to my ex husband was so that he could then take on responsibility for selling without any further interaction.
Thank you very much.
Not really what I wanted to hear but glad to know the status thank you!