I am splitting up with a same sex partner of 20 years. We are not married or civil partnered. My flat is in my name only, but he has used it approximately 4-6 days per month as a base for his work. We are so far very amicable in our separation. The flat is owned by me and only my name is ***** ***** and only I have paid mortgage. However, 8 years ago he gave me a gift of £20,000 as deposit and moving expenses. There is no formal record of the intention of this gift and he just wrote me a cheque for this amount. No formal deeds or entitlement were established. Would he have any claim on the property either now or if I were to sell the property?
The money he gave me will clearly appear in historical bank statements, but there is no record of any intention of its purpose.
Purchase price of £111.000. Now worth approx. £120 000. Outstanding mortgage of £85 000.
Relist: Answer came too late. I posted this question approx. 9 hours ago and, whilst not expecting an instant answer, I chose this form of advice to avoid a long delay or need for an appointment
Purchase price £111 000
Equity approx. £30 000