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Hello and thank you for your question. I will be very pleased to assist you. I'm a practicing lawyer in England with over 10 years experience.
For the avoidance of doubt the broker declined to provide you with a quote at all - is that correct please?
Thanks. Being ‘refused’ insurance is a problematic term in that it does not have an agreed definition within the insurance industry. It is possible to ask an insurer to clarify what they mean when they ask the question as each insurer can set its own definition.
If you are concerned to establish precisely what they mean you can and should ask the relevant insurer for clarification.
However if a broker or insurer has simply chosen not to offer you a quote this would not constitute a refusal of insurance and would not need to be declared as a refusal unless an insurer specifically asks if an insurer or broker has declined to give you a quote which would be rare in deed.
Similarly have an insurer has declined insure you because they do not offer cover to people living in flood zones or similar you have not been ‘refused’. Here you are simply being denied insurance because you do not fit their criteria. For example this is the same as an individual who is 20 seeking insurance with an insurer that only insures people over 50. He cannot be covered but he has not been refused insurance.
Accordingly based on what you say unless an unsurer specifically asks if a broker has ever declined to give you a quote the issue would not need to be disclosed. Such a request would not be usual on standard policies.
Is there anything above I can clarify for you?
no. you have been very helpful
A pleasure. Best wishes