We've lived together for 11 years and we have three children aged 10, 8 and 2. I had purchased the property before getting married (15 years ago) and that is why it is solely owned by me (as per the land registry).
Yes she has worked for most of the time. She had time off work every time we had a baby and resumed work once the child was about 12 months old.
No she hasn't done that. What is the procedure for this?
She has been asked to file evidence to support her claim that she has an interest in the property. This needs to be done within 4 weeks. If evidence is not filed within this period then she would be barred from making any claims in the future and the Trustee in bankruptcy would be entitled to 100% of the equity.
Is it not too late to register her Matrimonial Home Rights now that the property is in bankruptcy estate? Also, the link you sent containing the form does not work.
The link you sent containing the form does not work.
OK great, just a bit of clarification please. A wife has a beneficial interest, is this the law? I mean, if this is the law then why has the court asked her to file evidence to demonstrate that she has a beneficial interest? Why didn't the judge accept that she has a beneficial interest because she is married to the bankrupt?
Also, why didn't the trustee (in bankruptcy) accept her beneficial interest? Why did he bother going to the court?
It just seems like she has been caused a lot of headache and stress for no reason if there is a law that says that the starting point should be 50/50.
What is the fee to be submitted with the form HR1 (Notice of Home Rights) please?