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My husband is negotiating a lease with a commercial property. I have not signed anything but my bank account details have been used to convince a landlord he is solvent. He has named himself personal guarantor. Am I liable for the lease... a) without signing b) as a spouse who has 'helped' secure it with her bank details.
He has another lease with a commercial property, he is the director and has given a directors guarantee. Corespondance to this is in both our names. Have i signed something for this. Does this make me equally liable?
Thank you-that is reassuring and what I thought must be correct.