A man in UK asked a French horse agent to purchase a stallion from a French stud farm. I have since found out he did not pay the agent but sold shares in the horse to myself and another person. Before I take action I would like to find out if legally the horse is owned by the man in the UK or the person who paid the horse’s owner.
The French agents wife paid for the horse when the cheque from the man in the UK bounced. The horse was then moved to Ireland to carry on his stud duties. I have only just found out about this. I think I will end up in court to recover my money from the man in UK.
Still no answer to question, in French law does the horse belong to the French agent or the man in UK?