No they weren't. It was very sad. My dad was his wife's carer and she died five days after him so didn't survive thirty days from his death. In her will without seeing it, she left all her estate to her daughter but morally and I hope legally, I believe I am entitled to a share of the house sale proceeds because without him there would have been no house to sell (she would have been in care institutions). If I can establish that he was paying their mortgage and it was clear in his own will that I should benefit from his estate, then I believe that there would be an implied trust entitling him and his beneficiaries to a fair share of the sale proceeds
Thank you for clarifying.