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No, I do not own the shares in the UK limited company in question. Those shares (100 only) are owned by my wife.
However, I'd be interested to know why that made a difference. If I owned the shares (or owned 50-50) would the answer be different?
Happy to understand that so far.
One last tweak to your answer, if I may. If she wants to buy another UK company (also non-trading) and wants to appoint me as a director in the UK - and this is obviously after the act/date of bankruptcy in AU - would that change the answer materially? (And, AJ, I do understand that the word "materially" is a lawyer's best friend or nightmare!)
Per your last para, I will take advice in Australia from my Trustee.
Thanks, ***** ***** all clear.