That is correct. My husband has always paid the school but he lost his job and the bills mounted-up. The school and him came to some arrangement but he failed to keep up the bills. Last month he promised to pay it off from his pension fund but declined to do so and only paid half. He has now decided to let the matter go to court but the bills are in my name, even though he is responsible for the payments. He said he asked for the names to be amended so that the invoices would be in his name but that he tried to do this but that this was not accepted and he could not do it. If he says that he has always taken and still does take responsibility for the payments, can this matter be resolved without me being involved?
No, thinking about it I did sign something with the school because I was mother and Peter and I was not married at the time, so I signed something there, but can't remember what exactly.
If my husband is happy to be responsible for the payments and that it was he who let them slip, can he become responsible legally, so that I have nothing to do with it? I will ask my husband for the copy and let you know later, if that's ok?
If in the school contract I signed that I was responsible for payments, then it looks like the debts are my responsibility but if my husband is willing to take over that debt, can this be made contractual so it is his debt and not mine. He said he is willing to do this?
Can the contract not be done before I am taken to court, so it is my husband that goes to court?
So if we get the contract made up today,
a) where do we send it to be verified, legally binding?
b) will this prevent me having to counter sue my husband?
is it possible for you to give me an example of the wording the contract should have, please,
If I put:
"I, P.Woolliscroft have always been responsible for the payment to Bricklehurst School, I am, therefor responsible for the said dept"
Is that enough?
Thank you, ***** ***** we not need to send this declaration to anyone?