She is renting from a private landlord. She used to have a lease (1968-1988) but it lapsed and she became a protected tenant. On her old lease, she was only required to pay half (i.e. 50%) of the insurance. Is this still valid? Or has the law changed and she is required to pay the full amount?
I called the VOA and they said they thought she shouldn't be charged at all but to check with a lawyer. Hence, this email to AnswerUK.
Nothing was ever put in writing following the lapse of the lease. She has been getting a rent assessment and subsequent reduction in quarterly rental from the VOA. In the Rent Officer's last assessment of a Fair Rent in 2014, there is a line which says:
Other terms of tenancy taken into consideration in determining fair rent:
Registered rent does not include Tenant's insurance contribution.
I just looked at the original lease which lists the building insurance as one of the landlord's requirements.
So now I'm not clear as to what her financial obligation is.
I just checked the original lease which is actually dated 1969 and this specifies that the landlord will provide insurance. Can I then assume that she has no requirement to pay the insurance or does the Rent Officer's comment about the Fair Rent excluding insurance apply? If she is required to pay insurance, per the Rent Officer's comment dated 2014, can I still require them to provide the policy and request a reduction in cost?
Many thanks for your help.