Alex, hello. Perhaps I should have worded it "does the company who has not supplied goods or services (meaning the supply of gas) have a claim of right to the cost of the material".
I understand that companies are obliged to accept the advice of the Ombudsman, so if the company decide to bill me, is it actionable?
Would a court consider I am legally liable?
Just so that I am clear, it was transferred wrongly from A to B. A now want to charge you for supply by B, is that correct?
As previously stated; the company who HAS supplied the fuel (gas) has stated because it was their error, they are not going to charge for it.
I want to know, authoritatively, IF the company who has NOT supplied the gas decide to pursue me for payment, do they have a legitimate claim?