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Because the money was not his and was leaving his account immediately to repay me
Not that I can lay my hands on instantly but I'm sure I could get confirmation from the conveyancers that in both cases I put up the money. His account will show £105,000 leaving to go into mine, and mine shows the £124,000 being transferred in December 2014 for the sale and £105,000 returning from his to mine in May 2015. There are therefore some very strange coincidences, or else it was a gift - why would I do that? It was a loan and I extracted a post-dated cheque from him for when the sale went through, just in case of accident. My account shows this being returned by his bank as they considered his signature did not match their template. He then paid by transfer. Why would I need something in writing from my son? I don't have that kind of relationship with my children. And why would I just give him £124,000? I'm old and can't afford to chuck it away.
Because he saw no reason why he would have to because the money was not his and furthermore concerned the roof over his head, which he believed was exempt from consideration as it concerned housing - the sale of one in order to purchase another. It certainly used to be.He is worried now, not because he has done anything wrong and now regrets it, but because he is being passed on to the outsourced, privatised agencies now replacing the civil service and they do not have a very pleasant or reassuring reputation, as does not,either, the sanctions arrangements currently de rigueur. He just needs to know his rights with regard to house sale money, and his legal position.