Hi Jenny - I do not think that this is a straightforward case of discrimination e.g. based on race, religion, sexuality etc. I do think that there is a degree of Senior Management incompetence, and/or taking easy options without considering the wider implications.
If my job description had not changed over 11 years then why was the grading (and pay) changed for me in 2012, when my counterparts over the years had the opportunity to bid for their posts at a higher grade. Is it not the case that the job was in fact a higher grade all along and they had just been paying me less between 2004 - 2012?
Who took the decision to prevent me from bidding for the position at a higher grade without consulting me? why was this decision made?
I cannot answer those questions and cannot get a straightforward answer from the HR manager.
I believe that it was easier to keep me overseas and pay me a higher salary on a temporary basis in order to keep the office operational. Clearly I was capable of carrying out all responsibilities at a higher level, as demonstrated by previous assessments.
Why was my counterpart in the USA treated more fairly than me? Why was he allowed to bid for the position at higher grades (twice) in the same time scale - but I was not permitted to do the same?
As I say, I cannot put this don to discrimination - but to my thinking I have been treated unfairly in comparison to colleagues without any clear reason.
Do I have case to retain the higher grading, or receive the appropriate level of pay at the higher grade backdated to 2004?