This was the wording.
"the terms of this agreement are offered by the employer without any admission of liability and are in full and final settlement of all and any claims or rights of action that the employee has or may have arriving out of their employment with the employer, or its termination, whether under common law, contract, statute or otherwise, whether or not such claims, or could be, known to the other parties or in their contemplation at the date of this agreement in any jurisdiction and including, but not limited too, the claims in schedule 1(each of which is intimated and waived) but excluding and claims by the Employee to enforce this agreement, any personal injury claims which have not arisen as at the date of this agreement and any existing personal injury claims in relation to accrued pension entitlements."
The issue I have is that this was a seperate agreement, it was lawfully owed by the company and wasn't included in the sale, the sale was £250,000 for shares, not £240,000 for shares and £10,000 for the costs incurred prior to the sale.
Would it not be the case that an agreement the buyer made AFTER the sale of shares would be upheld ?
The fact is that this is morally a fraudulent issue as I was rightfully owed the money and the buyer knew he didn't want to pay and was just holding me off until the deal on his side was completed.