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Jo C.
Jo C., Barrister
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Experience:  Over 5 years in practice
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A bridal gown was altered .client was happy .went away .next

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A bridal gown was altered .client was happy .went away .next day complained about the dress, never said a word about it to seamstress .took it to different seamstress .now want dress refunding from 1st seamstress.
Because a second seamstress was used is this classed as 3rd party. And no claim can be made .
Submitted: 1 year ago.
Category: Law
Expert:  Jo C. replied 1 year ago.
Hi.
Thank you for your question. My name is ***** ***** I will try to help with this.
how can I help with this please?
Customer: replied 1 year ago.
A bridal gown was altered .she was happy with result .went home with gown. The next day complained to the shop .who never contacted 1st seamstress ,just sent her to another seamstress.
Now bride wants refund from 1st seamstress .
Because 3rd party was involved am i correct in saying there is no claim.
Expert:  Jo C. replied 1 year ago.
Not necessarily. The claim would still exist against the shop if there was any failure. The 1st seamstress would be liable for any negligence that could be proven against her which is obviously hard to do because of the intervention of another and anyway would only amount to the cost of putting it right. Can I clarify anything for you?
Customer: replied 1 year ago.
So , is the shop responsible for repaying bride ,or seamstress, or just alteration charges of 2nd seamstress.
Expert:  Jo C. replied 1 year ago.
Did the bride wear the dress?
Customer: replied 1 year ago.
Yes, it was worn
Expert:  Jo C. replied 1 year ago.
Then the only liability is the cost of alteration. if the shop did it then the bride has no claim at all but the shop may have a claim against the first seamstress
Jo C., Barrister
Category: Law
Satisfied Customers: 69792
Experience: Over 5 years in practice
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