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My husband bought a car from Rix Motors two years back and it was
found to be faulty. Unfortunately they set up a Personal Loan agreement
with Barclays which has been settled and another car purchased.
But because of all the hassle regarding the car he is now paying an
agreement which he used to settle the car to get rid of it, but a car
dealership has told him that they were not allowed to sell him the car
using a Personal Loan, hence the question that was raised.
Unfortunately my husband is dyslexic and it is easier for him to
communicate with people over the phone.
When he mentioned it to me I did wonder if what the dealership
was saying was correct.