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I'm acting on behalf of my late sister in her ongoing divorce financial settlement which was not resolved before she died. She had obtained her decree absolute. I'm in communication with her ex husband on behalf of her estate and her family XXXXX. I sent up a gmail account calledXXXXX so it may be considered a group email account to communicate with her ex husband. I always sign of the correspondence from XXXX. I'm wondering whether this correspondence would be considered as published - which I understand is one of the points to establish if he was to consider any of the contents to be libellous.
I think I may have said something that may be difficult to establish the truth - its his word vs. mine.
But my main point is whether the communication could be considered published or not. It was only sent to him from a group email address that none of my other family members have ever accessed and they would not view that he suffered repetitional damage.
Thanks Alex for your response,
However I wish to clarify one point. Sending from a group email address and signing on behalf of a number of people only to the private email address of the person who claims to be defamed - does that constitute publication?
Thank you for your help so far - therefore for the email contents to be considered defamatory - one of the people who have access to the group email or were included as a signatory XXXXX would have to consider that the recipients reputation was damaged. XXXXX
None of the email group members family members do consider that my late sister's ex husband reputation is damaged by the email content that was sent to him and only to him. Therefore on that basis I would appreciate if you can confirm that he does not have a case for defamation.
Hello Alex - I tried to rate your service as excellent - but it stated that I had already rated you - which I don't remember doing.
Hopefully I will be able to rate you as excellent - if you acknowledge this reply.