Good evening, I have a query that I believe is outside the boundaries of law but remain hopeful that there is a loop hole or a law that adresses my sort of situation. I met a man and developed a romantic relationship. He semi moved into the house that I owned and lived in with my two children. It was not big enough for all of us and he claimed that he was going to become extremely rich through deals he had with the council and land he owned and said to buy a bigger house. So... he instructed me to find a house that could accommodate my family, him and his two children as and when they came to visit. He provided financial details, saying that I was receiving dividends from his company, that enabled me, upon his instruction, to get a mortgage in my own name and purchase a larger property. It was agreed verbally that I would pay in the £116,000 equity form the sale of my house and that he would put in the same once his monies came through from the sale of the land, he also asked me to sign, infront of his solicitor, a document claiming that after a certain period he would own a part of the house, escalating over time to half ownership. I refused to sign until he had put in his £116,000. I bought the house and whilst we lived together he contributed the same amount, into housekeepig that I was paying for the mortgage - £1,300.00 pm. However, he made living together extremely difficult, causing deliberate unnecessary upset with my son and great difficulties when his children came to stay. Then rather than paying his £116,000 into the house, he purchased his flat from his company, I don't know how much he had to pay, but he had tenants in for a while and then when things turned sour between us, shortly afterwards, he moved into this flat and is still living there to this day. I meanwhile was working three jobs to pay the mortgage and borrowed money against the mortgage to meet the monthly payments. I then lost my main source of income. I had to sell the house. I sold it for the price I paid for it but lost my £116,000 and other monies that I had invested, as in paying off his credit card, not much, was in the hundreds not thousands but also running up a personal credit bill for the meals out etc that he wanted to have. Anyway, I had to sell, and I had to move in with my ex husband, my daughter moved in with her friends family- whom I naturally had to pay for her upkeep and my son moved in with his then time girlfriend. I have since got back on my feet but am in rented accommodation and will be for the rest of my life having lost the equity of £116,000 that I orignally had. Is it possible to reclaim some of which i've lost due to his deceit. I know I was a fool but it saddens me to think that people can take a family from their home and leave with them with nothing whilst they sit and enjoy owning their own home which they would never have had, had it not have been for my stupidity. Please advise if there is any legal way I can take this forward.