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Although you are only "renewing" your Tenancy agreement, in the eyes of the law, this new document acts as if it is a new Tenancy. As such, any break clause is not valid if it can be exercised before 6 months has expired.
I therefore assume that the Landlord's Agent has made a mistake here, and the clause should read that you ar eentitled to serve a notice anytime after 4 months (meaning you could then vacate at the end of the 6 month period).
For what it is worth- the wording you have provided does mean that you could serve Notice after 2 months, with the Notice then expiring sometime after the 4 months (meaning you can vacate end of Feb 2016). However, please go back to the Agents and get them to amend the wording so it is legally binding.
I hope this helps, but please let me know if you require any further clarification.
Thanks for your quick answer but I am not satisfied yet with it.
I agree with you that the proposed wording seems to mean that I can leave the property after 4 months (ie. end of Feb 2016).
I don't want to change the text as I prefer having a 4 months break clause instead of a 6 months break clause.
So my question was: in case I send the notice letter at the end of December 2015, am I legally allowed to terminate the tenancy at the end of Feb 2016. In other words, would the Landlord have any chance to force me to stay (or pay) until end of April 2016 ?
I need your answer tonight as my Landlord is chasing me to sign.
Thanks for your reply.
If the wording remains the same, you are indeed entitled to vacate at the end of the 4 month period (28th Feb), provided you have served the break notice on 31st December.
However, if the Landlord served notice on you asking you to leave on 28th Feb, this would be invalid, as a Tenant has the right to remain in a property under an Assured Shorthold tenancy for at least 6 months.
I hope this clarifies the position.