I sold a damaged repaired car on autotrader to a customer. After 10 days the customer called to me say there are numerous faults with the vehicle such as brakes faulty, gearbox not good and engine smokes. He also complained there are big gaps around headlights.
To my surprise, the car was a low mileage good condition vehicle with only a slight wing damage. Even in its damage form the vehicle was being moved without any faults.
He asked me to refund his money without allowing me to inspect the car and without even showing a garage or professional inspection report.
He sent me a recorded tracked letter and I have explained :
1. I have sold the car without any guarantee and as trade sale as signed by me and him on sales invoice
2. How he drove the car 100 miles with all these faults
3. If the car was faulty why did he not contact me within 24 hours
4. He acknowledged in one of this correspondence he acquired the car on the 17 and he actually got the vehicle insured on the 24th. Does that mean he has done anything in between because this also means he illegally drove the car from London to Birmingham without any insurance.
He has now filled the small claims against me and I have mentioned all the above in my deference. I have received a letter from court today for mediation and need to signed it and return to them.
I don't know where I stand now. Can you please help.
i am a trader , trading from home. I sold the car at £3,220 without any guarantee and under trade terms all outlined in the sale invoice we both signed x 2 copies. Valuation for a similar car is £6000
But when he collected the car, he said :
He trade with cars hence I drafted trade sale and sold without any guarantee.
He failed to bring the car for us to check
Without any garage or professional inspection of the car, how can he support his claim?
He drove the car without any insurance, does that not reveal his personality to the court
If he has caused malicious damage to the vehicle ?
There must be a way out as a trader, how can a small business like me suffer just because someone has bought a car and abused it only to ask for an outright refund.
But what if he gives me that car with faults that were not there. Why should I be penalised. Where do I stand if there are problems no known to us. Should I bear the costs and lose?