The policy would have been in my wife's name, but unfortunately she is away for a couple of days at the moment and I will have difficulty contacting her to confirm the detail.
As we were going to sell the car at that time, the insurance may well have elapsed as the vehicle had not been in use for a number of months and was the reason for selling it at the time.
I'm just surprised that I have had no prior warning or notification beforehand of the issue, despite the DVLA saying that I would have received notifications. Is it possible that the new owner could have received such notices and is the reason I had not received them?
Yes, i'm the owner of the vehicle, but my wife predominantly drove the vehicle and therefore insured it with me as a named driver.
I don't really have a problem with a fine for not having the vehicle insured or not having a SORN in place, it's more down to the point that after having received the notice from the court, I inquired directly with the DVLA regarding the matter, only to be told that I would have received notices requiring action, either to present a SORN or insure the car. I had not received any notification prior to the court notice and furthermore the DVLA were not prepared to confirm when such notices had been issued or forward any copies to me.
It all seems a little heavy handed and unreasonable from the DVLA.
The only other query I have is, apart from a fine, would I likely to receive any points on my licence.