No, I am asking
A) Based from what I have said , have I committed the offence of taking a vehicle without the owners consent?
B) If not , is there any case law I can refer to
I am a bit confused about this comment you made
"I don't think there is a case to answer in twoc though as clearly there was an intention to permanently deprive so if anything it is a theft."
Are you saying there is or there is not a case to answer for TWOC???
My argument is that, I asked him several times, to collect the car and he refused, I told him that I did not have the money to pay him, and I would have to sell the car.
When does property become abandonment ?
Why do you think this is theft , be good to get your opinion.
1) I had a honest belief that I had the lawful authority to sell the car
2) I told him that I was going to do this.
3) I also offered to pay him the money for what the car was sold for.
Can you tell me a bit more about abandonment, how long does the property have to be with be , for it to be considered "abandonment" again is there any cases I can review.
I really am grateful for your help.
I told him that I would take the car to his house, he said if i did that I would be committing a offence, as the car was not insured at the time by him.
I personally think it is crazy, the customer didnt want the car , I didnt have the funds to pay him back, and I advised him that this was the action i would take if he didnt collect the car.