Is it documented that the flat money came half from the son and half from the mother? For example, would the solicitor who acted on the purchase confirm that? Or can the money be shown coming from the son’s bank account?
If that’s the case, and either of those can be shown, then the son or now the son’s estate has a claim for his equitable share of the property in respect of the money that he put in.
Can I clarify anything for you?
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